Monday, January 22, 2018

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Share some CCIE Security 400-251 exam questions and answers below.
Which two statements describe the Cisco TrustSec system correctly? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco TrustSec system is a partner program, where Cisco certifies third-party security products as extensions to the secure infrastructure.
B. The Cisco TrustSec system is an approach to certifying multimedia and collaboration applications as secure.
C. The Cisco TrustSec system is an Advanced Network Access Control System that leverages enforcement intelligence in the network infrastructure.
D. The Cisco TrustSec system tests and certifies all products and product versions that make up the system as working together in a validated manner.
Answer: C, D

Which three statements are true regarding RFC 5176 (Change of Authorization)? (Choose three.)
A. It defines a mechanism to allow a RADIUS server to initiate a communication inbound to a NAD.
B. It defines a wide variety of authorization actions, including "reauthenticate."
C. It defines the format for a Change of Authorization packet.
D. It defines a DM.
E. It specifies that TCP port 3799 be used for transport of Change of Authorization packets.
Answer: A, C, D

According ISO27001 ISMS, which of the following are mandatory documents? (Choose 4)
A. ISMS Policy
B. Corrective Action Procedure
C. IS Procedures
D. Risk Assessment Reports
E. Complete Inventory of all information assets
Answer: A, B, C, D

Which two certificate enrollment methods can be completed without an RA and require no direct connection to a CA by the end entity? (Choose two.)
A. SCEP
B. TFTP
C. manual cut and paste
D. enrollment profile with direct HTTP
E. PKCS#12 import/export
Answer: C, E

Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.)
A. You cannot pair a VLAN with itself.
B. For a given sensing interface, an interface used in a VLAN pair can be a member of another inline interface pair.
C. For a given sensing interface, a VLAN can be a member of only one inline VLAN pair, however, a given VLAN can be a member of an inline VLAN pair on more than one sensing interface.
D. The order in which you specify the VLANs in a inline pair is significant.
E. A sensing interface in inline VLAN pair mode can have from 1 to 255 inline VLAN pairs.
Answer: A, C, E

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below.
When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point?
A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key
B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK
C. KCK, KEK, TK
D. KCK, KEK, MIC key
Answer: A

A customer is concerned that radar is impacting the access point that service the wireless network in an office located near an airport. On which type of channel should you conduct spectrum analysis to identify if radar is impacting the wireless network?
A. UNII-3 channels
B. UNII-1 channels
C. 802.11b channels
D. 2.4 GHz channels
E. UMII-2 channels
F. Channels 1, 5, 9, 13
Answer: E

MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support WPA.
B. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
C. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional
D. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
Answer: C

Which mobility mode must a Cisco 5508 wireless Controller be in to use the MA functionality on a cisco catalyst 3850 series switch with a cisco 550 Wireless Controller as an MC?
A. classic mobility
B. new mobility
C. converged access mobility
D. auto-anchor mobility
Answer: C

An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP?
A. Static WEP
B. CKIP
C. WPA+WPA2
D. 802 1x
Answer: C


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Sunday, January 14, 2018

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Share some Java and Middleware 1Z0-808 exam questions and answers below.
Which two class definitions fail to compile? 
A. abstract class A3 {private static int i;public void doStuff(){}public A3(){}} 
B. final class A1 {public A1(){}} 
C. public class A2 {private static int i;private A2(){}} 
D. class A4 {protected static final int i;private void doStuff(){}} 
E. final abstract class A5 {protected static int i;void doStuff(){}abstract void doIt();} 
Answer: C,E

Which two statements are true? 
A. Error class is unextendable. 
B. Error class is extendable. 
C. Error is a RuntimeException. 
D. Error is an Exception. 
E. Error is a Throwable. 
Answer: B,C

Which three statements are true about exception handling? 
A. Only unchecked exceptions can be rethrown. 
B. All subclasses of the RuntimeException class are recoverable. 
C. The parameter in a catch block is of Throwable type. 
D. All subclasses of the RuntimeException class must be caught or declared to be thrown. 
E. All subclasses of the Exception class except the RuntimeException class are checked exceptions. 
F. All subclasses of the Error class are checked exceptions and are recoverable. 
Answer: C,E,F

Which statement is true about Java byte code? 
A. It can run on any platform. 
B. It can run on any platform only if it was compiled for that platform. 
C. It can run on any platform that has the Java Runtime Environment. 
D. It can run on any platform that has a Java compiler. 
E. It can run on any platform only if that platform has both the Java Runtime Environment and a Java compiler. 
Answer: D

Which three statements describe the object-oriented features of the Java language? 
A. Objects cannot be reused. 
B. A subclass can inherit from a superclass. 
C. Objects can share behaviors with other objects. 
D. A package must contain more than one class. 
E. Object is the root class of all other objects. 
F. A main method must be declared in every class. 
Answer: B,C,F

Which statement will empty the contents of a StringBuilder variable named sb? 
A. sb. deleteAll (); 
B. sb. delete (0, sb. size () ); 
C. sb. delete (0, sb. length () ); 
D. sb. removeAll (); 
Answer: C

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Thursday, January 11, 2018

Update Cisco 300-375 WISECURE available exam questions

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Share some CCNP Wireless 300-375 exam questions and answers below.
When you configure BYOD access to the network, you face increased security risks and challenges. Which challenge is resolved by deploying digital client certificates? 
A. managing the increase connected devices 
B. ensuring wireless LAN performance and reliability 
C. providing device choice and support 
D. enforcing company usage policies 
Answer: D

A network engineer is implementing a wireless network and is considering deploying a single SSID for device onboarding. Winch option is a benefit of using dual SSIDs with a captive portal on the onboard SSID compared to a single SSID solution? 
A. limit of a single device per user 
B. restrict allowed devices types 
C. allow multiple devices per user 
D. minimize client configuration errors 
Answer: B

A customer is concerned about DOS attacks from a neighboring facility. Which feature can be enabled to help alleviate these concerns and mitigate DOS attacks on a WLAN? 
A. PMF 
B. peer-to-peer blocking 
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management 
D. split tunnel 
Answer: A

An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP? 
A. Static WEP 
B. CKIP 
C. WPA+WPA2 
D. 802 1x 
Answer: C

An engineer must provide a graphical trending report of the total number of wireless clients on the network. Winch report provides the required data? 
A. Client Summary 
B. Posture Status Count 
C. Client Traffic Stream Metrics 
D. Mobility Client Summary 
Answer: D

MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue? 
A. The client devices do not support WPA. 
B. The client devices do not support CCXv5. 
C. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional 
D. The NTP server is not configured on the controller. 
Answer: C

A customer is concerned that radar is impacting the access point that service the wireless network in an office located near an airport. On which type of channel should you conduct spectrum analysis to identify if radar is impacting the wireless network? 
A. UNII-3 channels 
B. UNII-1 channels 
C. 802.11b channels 
D. 2.4 GHz channels 
E. UMII-2 channels 
F. Channels 1, 5, 9, 13 
Answer: E

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Wednesday, January 10, 2018

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Share some CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam questions and answers below.
Which type of media uses electromagnetic waves that are generated by lasers, is often used in campus backbones, and is capable of transmitting to a distance of 60 kilometers? 
A. shielded twisted-pair cable 
B. coaxial cable 
C. multimode fiber-optic cable 
D. single-mode fiber-optic cable 
Answer: C

What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card? 
A. 3 
B. 4 
C. 5 
D. 6 
Answer: A

Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two) 
A. services layer 
B. high-speed packet switching O repeater 
C. access control 
D. QoS marking 
Answer: AC

Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.) 
A. FD00::2 
B. 192.168.2.2 
C. FF05::2 
D. 226.10.10.10 
E. 240.1.0.1 
Answer: CE

Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two) 
A. feature vtp 
B. vtp client mode 
C. vtp VLAN 
D. vtp version 
E. vtp static 
Answer: A,D

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two) 
A. Virtual Port Channel 
B. Layer 3 
C. Virtual Device Contexts 
D. iSCSI 
E. Fibre Channel 
Answer: BC

A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number? 
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number 
B. MDS-A# show running-config I include serial-number 
C. MDS-A# show host-id 
D. MDS-A# show license host-id 
Answer: D

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Tuesday, January 9, 2018

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.) 
A. Round-trip time 
B. QoS markings 
C. Bandwidth 
D. Ethernet 
E. Fibre 
F. Token ring 
Answer: A,B,C

A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication? 
A. account ID 
B. password 
C. PIN 
D. digest credentials 
Answer: D

An engineer wants to ensure that Cisco Jabber clients can communicate with instant messaging clients who are not registered to the same Jabber cluster. Which technology meets this requirement? 
A. intercluster trunk 
B. federation 
C. SIP trunk 
D. PRI 
Answer: B

An end user is running Cisco Jabber on the desktop. Which two icons must be selected to make a video call? (Choose two.) 
A. Contacts icon 
B. phone icon 
C. person icon 
D. message icon 
E. web video conferencing icon 
Answer: A,B

Which scenario allows user A in partition X to call user B in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? 
A. User B in partition X is not assigned to any CSS. 
B. User B in partition Y assigns both partitions to CSS-X. 
C. User B is not assigned to any partition or CSS. 
D. User B is assigned to partition Y and assigns to CSS-X. 
Answer: B

Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers? 
A. The primary extension is configured. 
B. The user's phones are listed as a controlled device. 
C. Users are associated with their directory number. 
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately. 
Answer: D

Which two items must first be configured before users can be added into Unity Connection via the Bulk Administration Tool? (Choose two.) 
A. partitions 
B. classes of service 
C. search spaces 
D. user templates 
E. schedules 
Answer: B,D

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Monday, January 8, 2018

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Share some IBM Certified Specialist C9020-667 exam questions and answers below.
What simplifies customer training requirements for storage management across multiple IBM enterprise offerings? 
A. Redbooks 
B. Storage GUIs 
C. DS Storage Manager 
D. Directed Maintenance Package 
Answer: B

Which key metric drives a customer's disaster recovery strategy? 
A. ROI 
B. RTO 
C. TCA 
D. TCO 
Answer: B

A mainframe customer wants to store petabytes of encrypted backups. The customer does not want to use physical tape any longer but does not wish to change any backup processes. 
Which solution should the sales person propose to the customer? 
A. TS7740 
B. DS8000 
C. ProtecTIER 
D. XIV Hot Encryption 
Answer: A

Which type of tape should an IBM sales specialist recommend to an enterprise customer? 
A. 3480 
B. DLT 
C. LTO 
D. SLC 
Answer: C

Which IBM product is applicable to a customer that has block storage sites in China, Japan, and Singapore, and needs to have them kept in sync for disaster recovery? 
A. XIV 
B. ESS 
C. DS8000 
D. IBM Spectrum Virtualize 
Answer: C

A bank customer has two sites in Italy and France. One site uses IBM storage and the other uses a competitor. 
Which IBM solution is required for block storage when unifying the sites for disaster recovery? 
A. XIV 
B. ESS 
C. DS8000 
D. IBM Spectrum Control 
Answer: D

Which characteristic of a customer's server defines the storage device that could be attached? 
A. Form factor 
B. Clock speed 
C. Memory size 
D. Operating system 
Answer: D


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